Massage Practical Exam

I.  Practitioner/Client Interaction   (15 points)

A.     Initial interview –screening questions                                     

B.     Communication-set up guidelines for pressure                        

C.     II. Professionalism, hygiene and touch 

             demonstration –(20 points)

A.     Appropriate appearance    (4 points)

1.      cleanliness and grooming                                                

2.      attire                                                                               

3.      nails                                                                                  

4.      jewelry                                                                                     

        B. Self contamination avoided                                                       

        C. Table appearance and maintenance                                             

        D. Appropriate pressure and sensitivity                                          

        E.  Continuing communication regarding pressure                        

         F. Bolstering and draping                                                              

III. Massage demonstration  (15 points)

A.     Overall

1. General pressure transition                                                    

2. General rhythm transition                                                      

3. Smoothness of strokes                                                            

a.       continuous contact

b.      contour of body

             4. Organization of strokes                                                            

              5. Oil application                                                                         

a.       amount

b.      dispensing

               6. Awareness of touch                                                                

IV.   Swedish massage strokes(24 points)

A.     Effleurage

1. Variation-light                                                                       

2. Variation –deep                                                                      

          3. Physiological effects                                                             

                4. Contraindications

B.     Petrissage

1.      Variation-light

2.      Variation-deep

3.      Physiological Effects

4.      Contraindications

C.     Friction

1.      Variation- light

2.      Variation-deep

3.      Physiological Effects

4.      Contraindications

D.     Vibration

1.      Variation-fine

2.      Variation-coarse

3.      Physiological Effects

4.      Contraindications

E.      Tapotement

1.      Variation-light

2.      Variation-deep

3.      Physiological effects’

4.      Contraindications

IV. Triggerpoint work

A.     Static

B.     Stripping

C.     Griner method

V.  Muscle Demonstrations-(3 muscles)

A.     Anatomy

B.     Location

C.     Action

D.     Endangerments

VI.              Endangerment Sites/Structures

A.     Outline and describe the borders of the  following

1.      Spleen

2.      Stomach

3.      Kidney

B.     Pick one of the following sites and describe the borders of the area and name 3 structures that require caution as you work

1.      Anterior or posterior triangle of the neck

2.      Axillary region

3.      Femoral triangle

4.      Popliteal

VII.            Treatments of specific pathological conditions

A.     Pick two of the following and answer the following questions regarding these conditions:  Supraspinatous tendonitis, torticollis, runner’s knee(IT band tendinitous) piriformis syndrome, shin splints, thoracic outlet syndrome.

1.      What structures are involved

2.      Explain a treatment plan

B.     Explain how you would treat

1.      Chronic spasms

2.      Hypertonicity

3.      Cramps

Massage Theory Tests 2

Massage Theory Tests 2

(Answers are in Capital Letters)

  1. The sequences and directions of Swedish massage strokes are most adapted to which anatomical or physiological situation?    a) Muscle attachments  b) Subcutaneous adipose tissue c) Autonomic nervous system  D) Lymph drainage and venous return
  2. Which Best describes the effect of massage therapy?  A) Increased venous and lymph flow b) increased venous, decreased arterial flow c) decreased venous and lymph flow d) decreased venous increased lymph flow
  3. In first aid for a choking victim, you want the victim to A) cough  b) swallow  c) vomit d) inhale
  4. The massage therapist needs to wear gloves if  a) there is no time to wash hands b) a client is embarrassed C) a client is infected with a contagious, transmittable disease d) his or her nails are too long
  5. A form of touch therapy in which the energy of the recipient is rebalanced, promoting health and healing is called  a) Reflexology b) acupressure C) Therapeutic Touch d) Lymphatic Drainage
  6. Lymph massage procedures begin at the  a) tendon  b) left thoracic lymph duct C) right thoracic lymph duct d) immune system
  7. Using Neurophysical muscle reflexes to improve the functional mobility of the joints is called  a) kneading b) NMT C) muscle energy technique d) stretching
  8. A pregnant client should have pillows under her back when she is lying a) on her side B) supine c) prone d) upside down
  9. A pre-event sports massage is basically a Swedish massage with the movements performed a) precisely  b) using heat c) slower  D) Faster
  10. Cross-fiber friction massage must be applied in which direction to the fibers?  a) horizontal  B) at right angles  c) triangular d) longitudinally
  11. MET helps counteract a) soft tissue injury  b) headache  c) sprains D) muscle spasms
  12. Cold applied for therapeutic purposes is called a) cryptology B) cryotherapy c) thermo-therapy d) icing cubing
  13. The draping method that covers the entire body is called A) top cover b) full-sheet c) diaper d) wrapping
  14. The draping method that covers the table and wraps the client is called the a) top cover B) full sheet  C) diaper  d) wrapping
  15. At the start of a massage, the client is lying a) face up B) face down c) on their side d) all of the above
  16. Most current massage styles are based on A) Swedish Movement  b) Swiss movements  c) German Movements d) Greek movements
  17. Psychological benefits of massage included reduced tension and fatigue, calmer nerves and a) therapeutic  B) renewed energy c) improved circulation d) spasms
  18. Friction, percussion and vibration are techniques that A) stimulate b) relax c) strengthen d) weaken
  19. The kneading technique in which the practitioner attempts to grasp the tissue and gently lift and spread it is called A) fulling b) pulling c) spreading d) nudging
  20. Pressing one superficial layer of tissue against a deeper layer of tissue in order to flatten the deeper layer is called a) rolling b) spreading C) Friction d) ironing
  21. Physiological effects  a) include results of the nervous system responses b) are never created directly by the massage therapist c) include desquamation of dead skin cells and sedation of the nervous system d) none of the above E) both a and c
  22. Petrissage is best used for a) breaking up scar tissue b) relieving chronic or pitted edema C) relaxing tight muscles d) decreasing circulation e) shortening a muscle that is overstretched
  23. Ischemia is a) swelling b) pain caused by hypertonicity c) lack of muscle tone D) lack of blood in an area
  24. When using Range of Motion (ROM) testing preceding an injury treatment, you would expect which of the following responses? a) pain on stretch in the acute stage b) pain with any movement in the chronic stage c) a soft end feel, which always indicates inflammation D) little or no pain during ROM in the chronic stage e) you do not use ROM testing prior to an injury treatment
  25. Development of scar tissue occurs during which stage of inflammation? a) acute b) sub-acute c) sub-chronic D) chronic
  26. Which stroke is best used to break up subcutaneous adhesions? a) cross fiber friction B) skin rolling c) light effleurage d) jostling
  27. Blood pressure generally decreases during massage  because a)the heart pumps less blood b) venous flow is impeded c) vasoconstriction occurs in the aorta D) vasodilation occurs in the peripheral arterial beds e) massage does not decrease blood pressure
  28. Which of the following strokes has the least effect on blood circulation? a) effleurage b) pettrissage C) tapotement d) wringing
  29. The swedish massage stroke most helpful for aligning scar tissue is a) tapping over the forming scar b) direct pressure friction into the scar c) effleurage distal to the scar and going away from the wound D) cross-fiber friction on the site
  30. If you want to assess your client’s full range of motion in any joint, you would a) have them look straight ahead and touch their fingertip to their nose B) use a combination of Active and Passive Swedish Gymnastics taking the joint through it’s motions c) use efflerage and petrissage to palpate for hypertonicities and scar tissue d) use friction to gently move the joint through its motions
  31. How would you test for a tight piriformis? a) client supine, straight leg lift B) client prone, internal rotation of thigh c) client prone, external rotation of thigh d) client supine, flexion of the knee
  32. An effective way to treat tendinitis would be a) direct pressure friction on the muscle belly B) cross fiber friction on the tendon c) petrissage on the tendon d) application of heat followed by vigorous stretching
  33. Linear friction is most useful for a) breaking up blood clots b) releasing endorphins into the muscle belly C) stretching muscle fibers d) increasing venous return of blood and lymph
  34. Neck ligament injuries may result in which of the following symptoms? a) pain in the arm b) headaches c) dizziness D) all of the above
  35. Collagen A) is a form of connective tissue that forms scar tissue b) is one of a host of digestive enzymes c) occurs naturally in the development of larger muscles during weight training d) is out of our scope of practice
  36. Which of the following skin conditions in not contagious? a) scabies b) ring worm C) psoriasis d) herpes
  37. Whiplash a) is a term that describes injuries sustained in rear-end collisions B) is a term that describes the movement of the head and neck c) is a term used to name the ligament damage to the neck d) occurs only in the neck
  38. Which of the following conditions are contraindicated for effleurage? A) very hairy skin b) insomnia c) pain d) inflammation
  39. Which of the following is contraindicated for massage of the abdomen? a) pregnancy b) diarrhea c) intestinal flu D) all of the above
  40. Massage applications can be defined by a) their depth b) their direction c) the movements of the practitioners hands D) all of the above
  41. Nerve trunks and centers are sometimes chosen as sites for the application of a) rolling b) rocking c) pressure D) vibration
  42. A bath with a temperature of 85 degrees F to 95 degrees is considered a) cool b) cold C) Tepid d) hot
  43. Warm baths should be followed by a (an) A) cool shower b) whirlpool c) salt bath d) ice pack
  44. The source of pain can be pinpointed through  A) palpation b) hard end feel c) inert tissues d) knuckling
  45. The procedure that uses bounding movements to improve the flow of lymph through the entire system is called lymphatic a) bounce b) sway c) purging D) pump manipulation
  46. Realignment of muscular and connective tissue and reshaping the body’s physical posture is called a)adjustment b) centering c) Rolfing d) posture analysis
  47. The attempt to bring the structure of the body into alignment around a central axis is called A) structural integration b) trauma c) alignment d) adjustment
  48. A hyper-irritable spot that is painful when compressed is called a(an) A) trigger point b) pain point c) ampule d)Rolfing
  49. Better flexibility is the result of A) sustained stretching b) ballistic stretching c) weight lifting d) exercise
  50. Linens should be washed a) when dirty b) monthly C) after each use d)twice monthly
  51. According to Dolores Krieger, therapeutic touch is most effective on a) fluid and electrolytes b) ANS C) lymphatic and circulatory problems D)all of the above
  52. The general effects of percussion movements are to tone the muscles by a) vibration b) friction c) kneading D) hacking
  53. The idea that stimulation of particular body point affect other areas is called a) chiropractic B) reflexology c) Rolfing d) touching
  54. The ability to carry on an activity over a prolonged period of time and resist fatigue is called a) strength b) muscle bulk C) endurance d) exercise
  55. Joint mobilization is a passive movement that can be integrated into a massage routine,for example a) pulling b) friction C) stretching to ROM d) tapotement
  56. Deep strokes and kneading techniques can cause an increase in a) vasoconstriction B) blood flow c) diastolic arterial pressure d) systolic arterial pressure
  57. Which best describes the technique of Rolfing? a) reflex therapy b) German Massage C) structural integration d) connective tissue massage
  58. Deep friction massage works best if it is applied a) directly over the problem area b) proximal to the problem c)distal to the problem D) around the problem e) where ever you want
  59. The cupping technique is best suited for a) acute bronchitis b) cancer of the lungs C) brondhiectasis d) acute tracheitis
  60. According to Beard, in superficial stroking the direction is A) feet to head b) lateral c) of no consequence d) head to feet
  61. Cupping, slapping, hacking and beating are all forms of a) effleruage b) friction c) petrissage D) tapotement
  62. Pain on stretch at the end of Range of Motion indicates a)acute injury to the muscle fibers b) acute injury to the joint capsule c) that an injury is in the subacute stage D that an injury is in the chronic stage e) we are not allowed to know this
  63. Which of the following are contraindications for tapotement? A) insomnia b) hypertonicity c) hyperemia d) all of the above
  64. When testing for tendinitis, you would a) use only active tests b) expect to get pain only in resisted tests C) get pain upon stretching the tendon d) always take the joint to the full end of it’s range of motion regardless of the client’s ability
  65. Friction can generally be used on which of the following conditions? a) when a joint is tight due to arthritis b) newly formed scar tissue C) hypertonic muscles d) when swelling or edema occurs
  66. Which of the following would not be effective in relieving a cramp ? A) heat on the muscle b) ice on the muscle c) reciprocal inhibition d) direct pressure
  67. You have a client with edema in the left knee.  Where might you begin massage?  a) on the left gastrocnemius b) on the left knee C) on the left hamstring and quad d) you would never perform massage on a client with edema
  68. Which of the following strokes, if done for too long a period, can cause loss of sensation due to nervous system overload? a) light effleurage B) tapotement c) petrissage d) kneading
  69. Rheumatoid arthritis in the acute phase is a) a condition for doing injury work B) contraindicated for all massage c) is contraindicated for only deep work d) is a condition for doing intense hydrotherapy
  70. The Piriformis, when tight, may entrap which structure? a) femoral nerve B) sciatic nerve c) gluteal artery d) gluteal nerve
  71. The therapeutic benefit of friction is A) local hyperemia b) lymphatic drainage c) tonification d) none of the above
  72. On the basis of current information the psychogenic effects that massage are most likely due to is a) histamine releases B) endorphin releases c) local lactic acid accumulation
  73. The main purpose of deep transverse friction is to A) separate muscle fibers b) lengthen muscle fibers c) shorten muscle fibers d) minimize pain
  74. Bindegewebs massage is a) connective tissue massage b)reflex zone therapy c) German connective tissue massage D) all of the above
  75. Which stroke most often begins and ends a swedish massage? A) effleurage b) petrissage c) friction d) vibration
  76. What is the best massage technique to life muscles off the bone? a) effleurage B) Petrissage c) vibration d) tapotement
  77. What is the first primary consideration before beginning massage treatment? a) make sure the client is comfortable b) Make sure no jewelry is being work c) wash hands thoroughly D) determine if contraindications are present
  78. How should you vary massage treatment with the age of the patient? a) progressively with increased age b) shorter with increased age C) shorter for very old and very young d) the same for any age
  79. According to McMillian, what type of tapotement is done with a cupped hand?  a) hacking B) clapping c) tapping d) beating
  80. According to Cyriax, the most potent form of massage is a) effleurage b) petrissage C) deep transverse friction d) shiatsu
  81. Which massage technique gives the best information about connective tissue structure in ligaments, tendons and joints? a) effleurage B) friction c) vibration d) tapotement
  82. Which stroke is best used for breaking down adhesions? a) effleurage b) petrissage C) friction d) vibration
  83. Strokes that knead are called a) effleurage B) petrissage c) friction d) vibration
  84. Biofeedback is useful in a) relieving pain through autogenic training b) controlling involuntary processes c) a therapeutic program D) all of the above d) what the national certification board need asap
  85. Which should not be claimed as a result of massage therapy?  a) prevention of edema b) increased arterial flow c) increased lymph flow D) weight reduction
  86. Guided imagery and mediation techniques a) remove blocks and stimulate healing b) are used for preventative treatment c) subliminally reinforce the mind D) all of the above
  87. The relaxing action of a muscle is obtained immediately by the application of a) cold B) heat c) tepid d) none of the above
  88. Pre-event sports massage includes all of the following strokes except a) compressions b) jostling c) circular friction D) light effleurage
  89. Which of the following would you treat for “runners knee”? a) piriformis B) IT band c) patellar aponeurosis d) medial collateral ligament
  90. The stretch-reflex mechanism is a term that describes a) how a muscle will stretch in response to a direct blow B) how a muscle contracts in response to being stretched c) shy you want to use as much force as possible to stretch a muscle d) what happens when you do cross-fiber friction on a muscle belly
  91. Torticollis involves which muscle? a) splenius capitis b) rectus capitis C)sternocleidomastoid d) rectus longus colli
  92. Which of the following structures may contribute to thoracic outlet syndrome? a) scapula b) scalene muscles c) brachial plexus D) all of the above
  93. Which of the following conditions could be relieved using manual lymphatic drainage technique? a) acute systemic infections b) thrombosis C) edema accompanying a sprained ankle d) congestive heart failure.
  94. Open C/Closed C, skin rolling and fulling are all forms of a) vibration b) effleurage C) petrissage d) friction
  95. Which structures are best accessed using tapotement? a) joint capsules B) muscle bellies c) tendons d) you would not use tapotement in massage
  96. The gate theory is used to explain how massage may assist in a) lessening a client’s edema B) decreasing a client’s pain c) increasing a clients ability to move a joint d) helping clients get off the table
  97. When you have a sprain, sharp pain is generally an indication of a) slight injury B) a more serious, acute injury c) you cannot tell by the severity of the pain d) we are not allowed to work with pain
  98. Massage benefits lymph flow best when strokes are a) away from the heart B) toward the heart c) heavy in both directions d) in certain local areas
  99. For which condition is abdominal massage most beneficial?  a) pregnancy b) appendicitis C) constipation d) enteritis
  100.  In which area is massage most often used for spinal cord injury to T12? a) chest b) neck C) legs d) trunk
  101. What condition commonly results in bone spurring? a) tendinitis  b) migraines C) osteoarthritis d) neuritis
  102. Curing a rear impact accident, the acceleration rate of the victim’ head:  a) is slower than the vehicle  B) is greater than the vehicle c) is the same as the vehicle d) is equal to the movement of the torso
  103. Typical head position for a client  with the right SCM in contracture from Torticollis would be: a)lateral flexion to the left, rotation to the left b)lateral flexion to the right, rotation to the right C) lateral flexion to the right, rotation to the left  d) lateral flexion to the left, rotation to the right
  104. Rotator cuff tendinitis does not include which tow tendon areas? A)deltoid and teres major b) infraspinatus and subscapularis c) supraspinatus and teres minor d) supraspinatus and subscapularis
  105. The painful arc in active shoulder abduction occurs at approximately: A) 50 to 120 degrees b) 180 degrees c) when the arm comes down d) The first 10 degrees
  106. The pain in a painful arc test is the result of: a)bracial plexus impningement b) pressure on the sternum C) pressure on the inflamed rotator cuff tissue as it passes under the acrominon process d) the movement of the scapula over the ribs
  107. Which of the following conditions is the result of an inflamed nerve ?  A) neuritis b) tendinitis c) bursitis d) rheumatoid arthritis
  108. Upon postural assessment, you find that the client’s right foot is severely pronated.  On which part of the right foot does he stand?  A)medial b) lateral c) on his outside heel d) on his toes
  109. Which muscles would you attempt to lengthen in question 8?  a) tibialis posterior and sartorius B)peroneous longus and extensor digitorum longus c) tibialis posterior and gastrocnemius d) all of the above
  110. Thoracic outlet syndrome is a type of a)arthritis b) fibromyalgia C) neuralgia d) chronic fatigue
  111. The borders for the posterior trangle of the neck are: a) transverse processes of the cervicals, splenius capitus, trapezius  B) SCM, trapezius, clavicle c) SCM spine of the scapula, trapezius d) SCM, trachea, mandible
  112. What type of hydrotherapy application includes active movement following numbness?  a) foot bath B) cryokinetics c) hot compress d) vascular flush
  113. Why is tendinitis slow in the healing process? a) poor synovial fluid secretion B) poor vascularization c) poor mobility d) poor muscular support
  114. Which joint is involved with a shoulder separation? a) sterno-clavicular B) acromio-clavicular c)costo-clavicular d) glenohumeral
  115. Which joint is involved with shoulder dislocation?  a) sterno-calvicular b) acromio-clavicular c) scapular thoracic D) glenohumeral
  116. Which of the following is defined as nerve pain?  a)neuritis b) tendinitis c) bursitis D) neuralgia
  117. A protruding 4th lumbar disc would most likely cause: a) arthritis b)tendinitis c) bursitis D) sciatica
  118. Which ROM is indicated when assessing an acute whiplash injury?  a) active b) passive c) resisted d) assisted
  119. What would be the most appropriate massage treatment for a muscle spasm?  a) gliding friction b) effleurage C) direct pressure d) tapotement
  120. Another name for tennis elbow is:  a) thoracic outlet syndrome b) golfer’s elbow c) mdial epicondylitis D) lateral epicondylitis
  121. Which head positions puts transverse processes and facets at minimum risk?  a) a rear end collision with victim turned looking in their rear view mirror B) a rear end collision with the victim looking straight ahead c) a sideswipe collision d) head on collision with the victim turned facing the passenger

 

Swedish Massage Theory Tests

Swedish Massage Theory Test Questions

Test Answers Below!

  1. The sequences and directions of Swedish massage strokes are most adapted to which anatomical situation? (a) Muscle Attachments (b) Subcutaneous adipose tissue (c) autonomic nervous system (d) lymph drainage and venous return
  2. Reflexive physiological effects (a) are generally a result of nervous system responsesare directly produced by the massage therapist (c) include desquamation of dead skin cells and assisting lymphatic and venous circulation (d) are always stimulating and to be avoided
  3. The best massage stroke to be used on a chronic sprain is (a) transverse friction (b) effleurage (c) pick up (d) tapotement
  4. Lymph drainage massage procedures should begin at the (a) tendons (b) left thoracic lymph duct (c) right thoracic lymph duct (d) immune system
  5. Cross fiber friction massage must be applied in which direction to the fibers? (a) horizontal (b) at right angles (c) triangular (d) longitudinally
  6. Friction, percussion and vibration are techniques that (a) stimulate (b) relax (c) strengthen (d) weaken
  7. The kneading technique in which the practitioner attempts to grasp tissue and gently lift it away from the bone is called (a) effleurage (b) pettrissage (c) tapotement (d) pinching
  8. Pressing one superficial layer of tissue against a deeper layer of tissue to improve blood flow is called (a) rolling (b) spreading (c) friction (d) tapotement
  9. Nerve trunks and centers are sometimes chosen as sites for the application of (a) rolling (b) rocking (c) triggerpoint (d) vibration
  10. A hyper-irritable point that is painful when pressure is applied to it is called a (an) (a trigger point (b) pressure point (c) energy center (d) pain point
  11. The general effects of percussion movements are to tone muscles by (a) vibration (b) friction (c) kneading (d) hacking
  12. The ability to carry on an activity over a prolonged period of time and resist fatigue is called (a) strength (b) muscle bulk (c) endurance (d) exercise
  13. Deep strokes and kneading techniques can cause an increase in (a) vasoconstriction (b) blood flow (c) diastolic arterial pressure (d) spasm
  14. The cupping technique is best suited for (a) bronchitis (b) lung cancer (c) asthma (d) pleurisy
  15. In addition to massage, which is most helpful in increasing lymph flow? (a) exercise (b) heat (c) immobilization (d) passive movement
  16. The therapeutic benefit of friction is (a) local hyperemia (b) lymphatic drainage (c) tonification (d) none of the above
  17. The main purpose of deep cross fiber friction is to (a) separate fibers (b) lengthen fibers (c) reduce pain (d) all of the above
  18. Which is the best stroke for breaking down adhesions? (a) effleurage (b) petrissage (c) friction (d vibration
  19. The purpose of petrissage is to milk the muscle and (a) remove toxins and waste products (b) assist venous return (c) squeeze the arteries and veins (d) apply pressure to the bones
  20. Moving a joint without assistance or resistance is called (a) flexion (b) range of motion (c) extension (d) resisted movement
  21. Direct physical effects of massage techniques on the tissues they contact are called (a) reflex effects (b) pressure points (c) physiological effects (d) mechanical effects
  22. Gentle stroking, light friction and light petrissage are found to be (a) stimulating (b) reactive (c) calming (d) all of the above
  23. Variations of effleurage include (a) knuckling and stroking (b) backstroke and friction (c) pressure and brushing (d) angling and stroking
  24. Variations of petrissage include (a) one-handed petrissage (b) open and closed C (c) V hand position (d) all of the above
  25. Variations of friction massage are (a) wringing and squeezing (b) knuckling and stroking (c) cross fiber manipulation and hooking (d) hacking and squeezing C
  26. Kneading includes all of the following except (a) rolling (b) fulling (c) petrissage (d) friction
  27. Vibration is best used for (a) breaking up scar tissue (b) relieving chronic edema (c) relaxing tight muscles (d) decreasing circulation
  28. Blood Pressure generally decreases during massage because (a) the heart pumps less blood (b) venous flow is impeded (c) vasoconstriction occurs in the aorta (d) vasodilatation occurs in the peripheral arterial beds
  29. Ischemia is (a) swelling (b) pain caused by hypertonicity (c) lack of muscle tone (d) lack of blood in an area
  30. Which stroke is best used to break up subcutaneous adhesions? (a) cross fiber friction on the borders of the muscles (b) skin rolling (c) light effluerage (d) tapotement
  31. The swedish massage stroke most helpful for relieving edema is (a) light tapping proximal to the edema (b) direct pressure friction into the edema (c) effleurage proximal to the edema and going towards the trunk (d) all of the above
  32. Cross-fiber friction is most useful for (a) breaking up blood clots (b) releasing endorphins into the brain (c) spreading and broadening the muscle (d) increasing venous return
  33. The gate theory is used to explain how massage may assist in (a) lessening a client’s edema (b) decreasing a client’s pain (c) increasing a client’s ability to move a joint through facilitation activation (d) helping client get in and out the door
  34. The five basic swedish massage strokes are (a) effleurage, hacking, shaking, vibration and cupping (b) effleurage , Petrissage, squeezing, compression and swedish gymnastics (c) effleurage, petrissage, friction, vibration and tapotement (d) effleurage, petrissage, friction, cupping and hacking
  35. The three stages of inflammation are (a) cute, subacute and hypertonic (b) acute, subacute and hyperacute (c) acute, subacute and chronic (d) acute, superacute and subacute
  36. An endangerment structure in the posterior triangle is (a) the common carotid artery (b) the sciatic nerve (c) the brachial plexus (d) the median nerve
  37. The borders of the femoral triangle are (a) inguinal ligament, rectus femoris, and sartorius (b) inguinal ligament, rectus femoris and adductor longus (c) inguinal ligament, sartorius and adductor longus (d) inguinal ligament, sartorius and popliteus
  38. Friction includes (a) light and deep gliding strokes over the skin (b) direct pressure and cross-fiber and linear strokes (c) shaking and tapping (d) rubbing the skin until the client’s skin turns bright red
  39. Reciprocal inhibition refers to ( a) a clients shyness (b) the fact that one group of muscles must relax when the client makes them (c) the fact that one group of muscles must relax when the opposite group contracts (d) all of the above
  40. Hypoxia is (a) less than the normal amount of blood in an area (b) lack of oxygen (c) a contraindication for massage (c) a condition characterized by cold extremities
  41. The antagonist muscle is ( a) the group of muscles contracting (b) the group of muscles opposite the group of contracting (c) the group of muscles assisting the group of muscles contracting (d) all of the above
  42. The ability of a muscle to contract in called (a) strength (b) power (c) speed (d) endurance
  43. The piriformis may be involved with (a) anterior leg pain (b) sciatic pain (c) anterior abdominal pain (d) lateral knee pain
  44. Which of the following is true of the muscle spindle cell? (a) when stretched too far, too quickly, it causes the muscle to relax (b) when stretched too far, too quickly, it causes the muscle to contract (c) when stretched too far, too quickly, it engages the Golgi tendon organ (d) when stretched too far, too quickly, it engages the gate theory
  45. The common carotid artery is in what region? (a) posterior triangle (b) bracial region (c) anterior triangle (d) delto-pectoral triangle
  46. Which massage stroke has the least effect on blood circulation? (a) effleurage (b) petrissage (c) tapotement (d) wringing
  47. Linear friction is most useful for (a) breaking up blood clots (b) releasing endorphins into the muscle belly (c) stretching muscle fibers (d) increasing venous return
  48. Which of the following is contraindicated for effleurage? (a) very hairy skin (b) insomnia (c) pain (d) inflammationMassage Therapy Practice Exams. NCETMB, NCETM and MBLEx
  49. Cupping, Hacking, slapping and beating are all forms of (a) effleurage (b) friction (c) petrissage (d) tapotement
  50. Which of the following are contraindicated for tapotement? (a) insomnia (b) hypertonicity (c) hyperemia (d) hypothyroidism
  51. Which of the following strokes, if done for too long a period, can cause loss of sensation due to nervous system overload? (a) light effleurage (b) tapotement (c) petrissage (d) knuckling
  52. Nerve strokes are most often used to (a) stimulate (b) tickle (c) assist venous return (d) soothe the nervous system
  53. Tapotement can be beneficial (a) if it is applied lightly over the abdomen (b) when used over the thoracic cavity to loosen mucus in the lungs (c) to stimulate circulation (d) all of the above
  54. Effluerage has the following effects: (a) eliciting parasympathetic response (b) vasodilation (c) assisting lymph and venous flow (d) all of the above
  55. Physiological effects primarily effect which system(s)? (a) nervous (b) circulatory (c) endocrine (d) all of the above
  56. If you want to stimulate rather than relax your client, your massage strokes would be (a) vigorous (b) slow and gentle (c) deep (d) light
  57. Mechanical effects occur because (a) the endocrine system is activated (b) the parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated (c) of our intent (d) we apply strokes to certain areas of the body
  58. Which structures are best massaged using petrissage? (a) joint capsules (b) muscle bellies (c) tendons (d) fingers
  59. Petrissage is contraindicated for (a) flaccid paralysis (b) hairy skin (c) pregnancy (d) ischemia
  60. The bodies ability to receive information from muscles, tendons and other structures regarding their external and internal conditions is called (a) proprioception (b) parasympathetic nervous system (c) the gate theory (d) hyperemia
  61. Reflexive physiological effects (a) are generally a result of nervous system responses (b) are directly produced by the massage therapist (c) include desquamation of dead skin cells and assisting lymphatic and venous circulation (d) are always stimulating and to be avoided

 

KEY:

  1. D
  2. A
  3. A
  4. C
  5. B
  6. A
  7. B
  8. C
  9. D
  10. A
  11. D
  12. C
  13. B
  14. A
  15. A
  16. D
  17. D
  18. C
  19. B
  20. B
  21. D
  22. C
  23. A
  24. D
  25. C
  26. D
  27. C
  28. D
  29. D
  30. B
  31. C
  32. C
  33. B
  34. C
  35. C
  36. A
  37. C
  38. B
  39. C
  40. B
  41. B
  42. A
  43. B
  44. B
  45. C
  46. C
  47. C
  48. A
  49. D
  50. A
  51. B
  52. D
  53. D
  54. D
  55. A
  56. A
  57. D
  58. B
  59. A
  60. A
  61. A

More Test Questions!  Answers in Capital Letters.

  1. Pettrissage beginning just distal to the medial condyle and moving proximal to the gluteal fold affects which muscles?  a) Anterior adductors B)Medial Hamstrings c) Quadriceps d) Deltoid
  2. In tapping a large area of the body, which massage maneuver is used?  A) Percussion b) Friction c) Efflerage d) Petrissage
  3. In massaging the anconeus, the massage therapist is working in the area of the A) upper extremity b) lower extremity c) abdominal wall d) none of the above
  4. For insomnia, which is BEST? a) heavy effleurage B) Light effleurage c) tapotement d) Pick – up
  5. The main purpose of deep transverse fricition is to A) separate muscle fibers b) lengthen muscle fibers c) shorten muscle fibers d) minimize pain
  6. Which is characteristic of a pressure stroke?  a) is of no consequence b) follows venous flow c) follows arterial flow D) follows gravity
  7. A client complains of and requests massage for severe low back pain.  Which condition prodMassage Therapy Practice Exams. NCETMB, NCETM and MBLExuces this pain and is a contraindication for massage?  a) phlebitis b) postural deviation C) herniated disc d) torticollis   ( I got this question off a massage school test and feel that it is inaccurate.  I work on people with disc injuries all the time – so go figure)
  8. To massage the elderly, which stroke would you use?  a)tapotement B) gentle effleurage and petrissage c) deep pressure d) friction over pressure area
  9. When palpating the midline of the back, what is being touched?  a) transverse process b) vertebral body C) spinous process d) articular joint
  10. Mild stimulation of the vagus nerve results in a) irregular heartbeat b) no change c) increased heart beat D)  decreased heartbeat
  11. Contraindications for hydrotherapy do NOT include which of the following?  a) kidney infection B) cold c) high or low blood pressure d) skin infection
  12. Massage therapy is used in pain management for a) cardiac and terminal cancer patients b) posttrauma patients c) post surgical patients D) all of the above
  • The use of cold to depress the activity of pain receptors in the treatment of myofascial pain  a) treatment skin temperature of 13.6 degree C  b) increases nerve conduction velocity  C) permits passive stretching and exercise d) decreases the general activity of the patient

Hydrotherapy Test Questions

1. When a person has a muscle spasm the best hydrotherapy treatment would be (a) heat (b) cold (c) tepid (d) neutral A

2. A contraindication for heat would be (a) chronic arthritis (b) edema (c) hyperemia (d) hypertonicity B

3. An effect of heat would be (a) decreases respiratory rate (b) increases pulse rate by 10 for every degree of temperature (c) increases muscular tone (d) increases blood pressure B

4. Which of the following would be a contraindication for using a hot foot bath: (a) headache (b) diabetes (c) lung congestion (d) elbow tendonitis B

5. A salt glow is (a) rubbing salt on the skin (b) taking a salt bath (c) taking salt internally diluted in warm water (d) swimming in salt water A

6. Which of the following would you not use on someone with osteoarthritis? (a) paraffin dip (b) warm compresses (c) salt glow (d) sauna C

7. Who would you not send into a steam room? (a) someone going for a massage (b)an overweigh person (c) someone with emphysema (d) someone who smokes C

8. The maximum safe temperature for a hot bath is (a) 99 (b) 105 (c) 110 (d) 115 B

9. Which of the following foot baths would be stimulating? (a) oatmeal (b) peppermint oil (c) chamomile (d) baking soda B

10. Hot hydrotherapy treatments have which of the following effects? (a) decreases blood flow (b) increases edema (c) increases muscle contraction (d) decreases heart rate B

11. A bath in which the pelvis and hips are immersed with the knees higher than the pelvis is called (a) turkish bath (b) sitz bath (c) Russian (d) western B

12. When doing hydrotherapy, it is critical that you (a) let the client’s body temperature change to the temperature of the application (b) keep the client’s body warm (c) get the area treated as hot or cold as possible (c)leave the client alone for a very long time B

13. An epsom salt bath can (a) relieve congestion (b) relieve pain and stiffness (c)is bad for clients (d) all of the above B

14. Hot compresses used immediately after an injury do not (a) increase blood flow (b) reduce inflammation (c) relieve pain (d) reduce muscle spasm B

15. Prolonged use of cold applications has which effect? (a) stimulation (b) energizing (c) calming (d) heating D

16. Expansion of blood vessels following cold applications is called a (an) (a) primary effect (b) secondary effect (c) stimulating effect (b) parasympathetic response B

17. A full body steam bath for the purpose of causing sweating is called a (a) salt glow (b) Russian bath (c) sweat bath (d) sitz bath B

18. The application of moist heat is superior to that of dry heat because of (a) convection (b) conduction (c) conversion (d)immersion B

19. Which is true regarding the local effect of cold therapy? (a) vasodilation (b) increased circulation (c) vasoconstriction (d) increased local metabolism C

20. The most beneficial use of alternate hot/cold (contrast) treatments is with (a) acute muscle spasm (b) chronic muscle spasm (c) diabetes (d) all of the above B