Massage Theory Tests 2

Massage Theory Tests 2

(Answers are in Capital Letters)

  1. The sequences and directions of Swedish massage strokes are most adapted to which anatomical or physiological situation?    a) Muscle attachments  b) Subcutaneous adipose tissue c) Autonomic nervous system  D) Lymph drainage and venous return
  2. Which Best describes the effect of massage therapy?  A) Increased venous and lymph flow b) increased venous, decreased arterial flow c) decreased venous and lymph flow d) decreased venous increased lymph flow
  3. In first aid for a choking victim, you want the victim to A) cough  b) swallow  c) vomit d) inhale
  4. The massage therapist needs to wear gloves if  a) there is no time to wash hands b) a client is embarrassed C) a client is infected with a contagious, transmittable disease d) his or her nails are too long
  5. A form of touch therapy in which the energy of the recipient is rebalanced, promoting health and healing is called  a) Reflexology b) acupressure C) Therapeutic Touch d) Lymphatic Drainage
  6. Lymph massage procedures begin at the  a) tendon  b) left thoracic lymph duct C) right thoracic lymph duct d) immune system
  7. Using Neurophysical muscle reflexes to improve the functional mobility of the joints is called  a) kneading b) NMT C) muscle energy technique d) stretching
  8. A pregnant client should have pillows under her back when she is lying a) on her side B) supine c) prone d) upside down
  9. A pre-event sports massage is basically a Swedish massage with the movements performed a) precisely  b) using heat c) slower  D) Faster
  10. Cross-fiber friction massage must be applied in which direction to the fibers?  a) horizontal  B) at right angles  c) triangular d) longitudinally
  11. MET helps counteract a) soft tissue injury  b) headache  c) sprains D) muscle spasms
  12. Cold applied for therapeutic purposes is called a) cryptology B) cryotherapy c) thermo-therapy d) icing cubing
  13. The draping method that covers the entire body is called A) top cover b) full-sheet c) diaper d) wrapping
  14. The draping method that covers the table and wraps the client is called the a) top cover B) full sheet  C) diaper  d) wrapping
  15. At the start of a massage, the client is lying a) face up B) face down c) on their side d) all of the above
  16. Most current massage styles are based on A) Swedish Movement  b) Swiss movements  c) German Movements d) Greek movements
  17. Psychological benefits of massage included reduced tension and fatigue, calmer nerves and a) therapeutic  B) renewed energy c) improved circulation d) spasms
  18. Friction, percussion and vibration are techniques that A) stimulate b) relax c) strengthen d) weaken
  19. The kneading technique in which the practitioner attempts to grasp the tissue and gently lift and spread it is called A) fulling b) pulling c) spreading d) nudging
  20. Pressing one superficial layer of tissue against a deeper layer of tissue in order to flatten the deeper layer is called a) rolling b) spreading C) Friction d) ironing
  21. Physiological effects  a) include results of the nervous system responses b) are never created directly by the massage therapist c) include desquamation of dead skin cells and sedation of the nervous system d) none of the above E) both a and c
  22. Petrissage is best used for a) breaking up scar tissue b) relieving chronic or pitted edema C) relaxing tight muscles d) decreasing circulation e) shortening a muscle that is overstretched
  23. Ischemia is a) swelling b) pain caused by hypertonicity c) lack of muscle tone D) lack of blood in an area
  24. When using Range of Motion (ROM) testing preceding an injury treatment, you would expect which of the following responses? a) pain on stretch in the acute stage b) pain with any movement in the chronic stage c) a soft end feel, which always indicates inflammation D) little or no pain during ROM in the chronic stage e) you do not use ROM testing prior to an injury treatment
  25. Development of scar tissue occurs during which stage of inflammation? a) acute b) sub-acute c) sub-chronic D) chronic
  26. Which stroke is best used to break up subcutaneous adhesions? a) cross fiber friction B) skin rolling c) light effleurage d) jostling
  27. Blood pressure generally decreases during massage  because a)the heart pumps less blood b) venous flow is impeded c) vasoconstriction occurs in the aorta D) vasodilation occurs in the peripheral arterial beds e) massage does not decrease blood pressure
  28. Which of the following strokes has the least effect on blood circulation? a) effleurage b) pettrissage C) tapotement d) wringing
  29. The swedish massage stroke most helpful for aligning scar tissue is a) tapping over the forming scar b) direct pressure friction into the scar c) effleurage distal to the scar and going away from the wound D) cross-fiber friction on the site
  30. If you want to assess your client’s full range of motion in any joint, you would a) have them look straight ahead and touch their fingertip to their nose B) use a combination of Active and Passive Swedish Gymnastics taking the joint through it’s motions c) use efflerage and petrissage to palpate for hypertonicities and scar tissue d) use friction to gently move the joint through its motions
  31. How would you test for a tight piriformis? a) client supine, straight leg lift B) client prone, internal rotation of thigh c) client prone, external rotation of thigh d) client supine, flexion of the knee
  32. An effective way to treat tendinitis would be a) direct pressure friction on the muscle belly B) cross fiber friction on the tendon c) petrissage on the tendon d) application of heat followed by vigorous stretching
  33. Linear friction is most useful for a) breaking up blood clots b) releasing endorphins into the muscle belly C) stretching muscle fibers d) increasing venous return of blood and lymph
  34. Neck ligament injuries may result in which of the following symptoms? a) pain in the arm b) headaches c) dizziness D) all of the above
  35. Collagen A) is a form of connective tissue that forms scar tissue b) is one of a host of digestive enzymes c) occurs naturally in the development of larger muscles during weight training d) is out of our scope of practice
  36. Which of the following skin conditions in not contagious? a) scabies b) ring worm C) psoriasis d) herpes
  37. Whiplash a) is a term that describes injuries sustained in rear-end collisions B) is a term that describes the movement of the head and neck c) is a term used to name the ligament damage to the neck d) occurs only in the neck
  38. Which of the following conditions are contraindicated for effleurage? A) very hairy skin b) insomnia c) pain d) inflammation
  39. Which of the following is contraindicated for massage of the abdomen? a) pregnancy b) diarrhea c) intestinal flu D) all of the above
  40. Massage applications can be defined by a) their depth b) their direction c) the movements of the practitioners hands D) all of the above
  41. Nerve trunks and centers are sometimes chosen as sites for the application of a) rolling b) rocking c) pressure D) vibration
  42. A bath with a temperature of 85 degrees F to 95 degrees is considered a) cool b) cold C) Tepid d) hot
  43. Warm baths should be followed by a (an) A) cool shower b) whirlpool c) salt bath d) ice pack
  44. The source of pain can be pinpointed through  A) palpation b) hard end feel c) inert tissues d) knuckling
  45. The procedure that uses bounding movements to improve the flow of lymph through the entire system is called lymphatic a) bounce b) sway c) purging D) pump manipulation
  46. Realignment of muscular and connective tissue and reshaping the body’s physical posture is called a)adjustment b) centering c) Rolfing d) posture analysis
  47. The attempt to bring the structure of the body into alignment around a central axis is called A) structural integration b) trauma c) alignment d) adjustment
  48. A hyper-irritable spot that is painful when compressed is called a(an) A) trigger point b) pain point c) ampule d)Rolfing
  49. Better flexibility is the result of A) sustained stretching b) ballistic stretching c) weight lifting d) exercise
  50. Linens should be washed a) when dirty b) monthly C) after each use d)twice monthly
  51. According to Dolores Krieger, therapeutic touch is most effective on a) fluid and electrolytes b) ANS C) lymphatic and circulatory problems D)all of the above
  52. The general effects of percussion movements are to tone the muscles by a) vibration b) friction c) kneading D) hacking
  53. The idea that stimulation of particular body point affect other areas is called a) chiropractic B) reflexology c) Rolfing d) touching
  54. The ability to carry on an activity over a prolonged period of time and resist fatigue is called a) strength b) muscle bulk C) endurance d) exercise
  55. Joint mobilization is a passive movement that can be integrated into a massage routine,for example a) pulling b) friction C) stretching to ROM d) tapotement
  56. Deep strokes and kneading techniques can cause an increase in a) vasoconstriction B) blood flow c) diastolic arterial pressure d) systolic arterial pressure
  57. Which best describes the technique of Rolfing? a) reflex therapy b) German Massage C) structural integration d) connective tissue massage
  58. Deep friction massage works best if it is applied a) directly over the problem area b) proximal to the problem c)distal to the problem D) around the problem e) where ever you want
  59. The cupping technique is best suited for a) acute bronchitis b) cancer of the lungs C) brondhiectasis d) acute tracheitis
  60. According to Beard, in superficial stroking the direction is A) feet to head b) lateral c) of no consequence d) head to feet
  61. Cupping, slapping, hacking and beating are all forms of a) effleruage b) friction c) petrissage D) tapotement
  62. Pain on stretch at the end of Range of Motion indicates a)acute injury to the muscle fibers b) acute injury to the joint capsule c) that an injury is in the subacute stage D that an injury is in the chronic stage e) we are not allowed to know this
  63. Which of the following are contraindications for tapotement? A) insomnia b) hypertonicity c) hyperemia d) all of the above
  64. When testing for tendinitis, you would a) use only active tests b) expect to get pain only in resisted tests C) get pain upon stretching the tendon d) always take the joint to the full end of it’s range of motion regardless of the client’s ability
  65. Friction can generally be used on which of the following conditions? a) when a joint is tight due to arthritis b) newly formed scar tissue C) hypertonic muscles d) when swelling or edema occurs
  66. Which of the following would not be effective in relieving a cramp ? A) heat on the muscle b) ice on the muscle c) reciprocal inhibition d) direct pressure
  67. You have a client with edema in the left knee.  Where might you begin massage?  a) on the left gastrocnemius b) on the left knee C) on the left hamstring and quad d) you would never perform massage on a client with edema
  68. Which of the following strokes, if done for too long a period, can cause loss of sensation due to nervous system overload? a) light effleurage B) tapotement c) petrissage d) kneading
  69. Rheumatoid arthritis in the acute phase is a) a condition for doing injury work B) contraindicated for all massage c) is contraindicated for only deep work d) is a condition for doing intense hydrotherapy
  70. The Piriformis, when tight, may entrap which structure? a) femoral nerve B) sciatic nerve c) gluteal artery d) gluteal nerve
  71. The therapeutic benefit of friction is A) local hyperemia b) lymphatic drainage c) tonification d) none of the above
  72. On the basis of current information the psychogenic effects that massage are most likely due to is a) histamine releases B) endorphin releases c) local lactic acid accumulation
  73. The main purpose of deep transverse friction is to A) separate muscle fibers b) lengthen muscle fibers c) shorten muscle fibers d) minimize pain
  74. Bindegewebs massage is a) connective tissue massage b)reflex zone therapy c) German connective tissue massage D) all of the above
  75. Which stroke most often begins and ends a swedish massage? A) effleurage b) petrissage c) friction d) vibration
  76. What is the best massage technique to life muscles off the bone? a) effleurage B) Petrissage c) vibration d) tapotement
  77. What is the first primary consideration before beginning massage treatment? a) make sure the client is comfortable b) Make sure no jewelry is being work c) wash hands thoroughly D) determine if contraindications are present
  78. How should you vary massage treatment with the age of the patient? a) progressively with increased age b) shorter with increased age C) shorter for very old and very young d) the same for any age
  79. According to McMillian, what type of tapotement is done with a cupped hand?  a) hacking B) clapping c) tapping d) beating
  80. According to Cyriax, the most potent form of massage is a) effleurage b) petrissage C) deep transverse friction d) shiatsu
  81. Which massage technique gives the best information about connective tissue structure in ligaments, tendons and joints? a) effleurage B) friction c) vibration d) tapotement
  82. Which stroke is best used for breaking down adhesions? a) effleurage b) petrissage C) friction d) vibration
  83. Strokes that knead are called a) effleurage B) petrissage c) friction d) vibration
  84. Biofeedback is useful in a) relieving pain through autogenic training b) controlling involuntary processes c) a therapeutic program D) all of the above d) what the national certification board need asap
  85. Which should not be claimed as a result of massage therapy?  a) prevention of edema b) increased arterial flow c) increased lymph flow D) weight reduction
  86. Guided imagery and mediation techniques a) remove blocks and stimulate healing b) are used for preventative treatment c) subliminally reinforce the mind D) all of the above
  87. The relaxing action of a muscle is obtained immediately by the application of a) cold B) heat c) tepid d) none of the above
  88. Pre-event sports massage includes all of the following strokes except a) compressions b) jostling c) circular friction D) light effleurage
  89. Which of the following would you treat for “runners knee”? a) piriformis B) IT band c) patellar aponeurosis d) medial collateral ligament
  90. The stretch-reflex mechanism is a term that describes a) how a muscle will stretch in response to a direct blow B) how a muscle contracts in response to being stretched c) shy you want to use as much force as possible to stretch a muscle d) what happens when you do cross-fiber friction on a muscle belly
  91. Torticollis involves which muscle? a) splenius capitis b) rectus capitis C)sternocleidomastoid d) rectus longus colli
  92. Which of the following structures may contribute to thoracic outlet syndrome? a) scapula b) scalene muscles c) brachial plexus D) all of the above
  93. Which of the following conditions could be relieved using manual lymphatic drainage technique? a) acute systemic infections b) thrombosis C) edema accompanying a sprained ankle d) congestive heart failure.
  94. Open C/Closed C, skin rolling and fulling are all forms of a) vibration b) effleurage C) petrissage d) friction
  95. Which structures are best accessed using tapotement? a) joint capsules B) muscle bellies c) tendons d) you would not use tapotement in massage
  96. The gate theory is used to explain how massage may assist in a) lessening a client’s edema B) decreasing a client’s pain c) increasing a clients ability to move a joint d) helping clients get off the table
  97. When you have a sprain, sharp pain is generally an indication of a) slight injury B) a more serious, acute injury c) you cannot tell by the severity of the pain d) we are not allowed to work with pain
  98. Massage benefits lymph flow best when strokes are a) away from the heart B) toward the heart c) heavy in both directions d) in certain local areas
  99. For which condition is abdominal massage most beneficial?  a) pregnancy b) appendicitis C) constipation d) enteritis
  100.  In which area is massage most often used for spinal cord injury to T12? a) chest b) neck C) legs d) trunk
  101. What condition commonly results in bone spurring? a) tendinitis  b) migraines C) osteoarthritis d) neuritis
  102. Curing a rear impact accident, the acceleration rate of the victim’ head:  a) is slower than the vehicle  B) is greater than the vehicle c) is the same as the vehicle d) is equal to the movement of the torso
  103. Typical head position for a client  with the right SCM in contracture from Torticollis would be: a)lateral flexion to the left, rotation to the left b)lateral flexion to the right, rotation to the right C) lateral flexion to the right, rotation to the left  d) lateral flexion to the left, rotation to the right
  104. Rotator cuff tendinitis does not include which tow tendon areas? A)deltoid and teres major b) infraspinatus and subscapularis c) supraspinatus and teres minor d) supraspinatus and subscapularis
  105. The painful arc in active shoulder abduction occurs at approximately: A) 50 to 120 degrees b) 180 degrees c) when the arm comes down d) The first 10 degrees
  106. The pain in a painful arc test is the result of: a)bracial plexus impningement b) pressure on the sternum C) pressure on the inflamed rotator cuff tissue as it passes under the acrominon process d) the movement of the scapula over the ribs
  107. Which of the following conditions is the result of an inflamed nerve ?  A) neuritis b) tendinitis c) bursitis d) rheumatoid arthritis
  108. Upon postural assessment, you find that the client’s right foot is severely pronated.  On which part of the right foot does he stand?  A)medial b) lateral c) on his outside heel d) on his toes
  109. Which muscles would you attempt to lengthen in question 8?  a) tibialis posterior and sartorius B)peroneous longus and extensor digitorum longus c) tibialis posterior and gastrocnemius d) all of the above
  110. Thoracic outlet syndrome is a type of a)arthritis b) fibromyalgia C) neuralgia d) chronic fatigue
  111. The borders for the posterior trangle of the neck are: a) transverse processes of the cervicals, splenius capitus, trapezius  B) SCM, trapezius, clavicle c) SCM spine of the scapula, trapezius d) SCM, trachea, mandible
  112. What type of hydrotherapy application includes active movement following numbness?  a) foot bath B) cryokinetics c) hot compress d) vascular flush
  113. Why is tendinitis slow in the healing process? a) poor synovial fluid secretion B) poor vascularization c) poor mobility d) poor muscular support
  114. Which joint is involved with a shoulder separation? a) sterno-clavicular B) acromio-clavicular c)costo-clavicular d) glenohumeral
  115. Which joint is involved with shoulder dislocation?  a) sterno-calvicular b) acromio-clavicular c) scapular thoracic D) glenohumeral
  116. Which of the following is defined as nerve pain?  a)neuritis b) tendinitis c) bursitis D) neuralgia
  117. A protruding 4th lumbar disc would most likely cause: a) arthritis b)tendinitis c) bursitis D) sciatica
  118. Which ROM is indicated when assessing an acute whiplash injury?  a) active b) passive c) resisted d) assisted
  119. What would be the most appropriate massage treatment for a muscle spasm?  a) gliding friction b) effleurage C) direct pressure d) tapotement
  120. Another name for tennis elbow is:  a) thoracic outlet syndrome b) golfer’s elbow c) mdial epicondylitis D) lateral epicondylitis
  121. Which head positions puts transverse processes and facets at minimum risk?  a) a rear end collision with victim turned looking in their rear view mirror B) a rear end collision with the victim looking straight ahead c) a sideswipe collision d) head on collision with the victim turned facing the passenger

 

Speak Your Mind

*